Ask Us Anything

to Submit your Question(s)


In the 1st Sunday of Lent's 2nd reading, it read "sin was in the world, though sin is not accounted when there is no law." (Romans 5:13) What does that mean?

I think a good example is to take a look at the American Wild West. There were no laws, no courts, and little to no government. If someone stole your stuff, they technically didn’t break the law because there was no law prohibiting it. All St. Paul is saying, then, is before the Mosaic Law was formally given, specifically the 10 Commandments, someone who stole something didn’t specifically break or transgress “the Law” because “the Law” wasn’t yet given. St. Paul says a similar thing a chapter before: “where there is no law there is no transgression.” There’s a big “but” here though. Before the Law “...sin was in the world.” Proof? Physical and spiritual death, which is the the rotten fruit of sin, especially original sin. It also doesn’t mean that people didn’t sin against the natural law, the universal law that we all can come to know by natural reason as human beings.

So why did God give us the Law? St. Augustine says it so beautifully and succinctly: ”The Law was given in order that we might seek grace, grace was given in order that we might fulfill the Law”. Before the Law, people settled with the way the world was: power-seeking, oppression, slavery, domination over women, etc. But by the Law, God showed another way. This “way” would be impossible without His help and His life in us. So, He sends His only Son to us so that we might be filled with the grace to fulfill the Law in love, for “ is the fulfillment of the Law.” (Romans 13:10) Where do we receive this grace and life? Primarily, through the celebration of the Eucharist, where Christ gives himself totally to us, body, blood, soul, and divinity. Thank you, Lord, for the Law to know the way, and the grace to walk the way of Life.

-Mitchell Narvasa
Pastoral Associate for Evangelization and Discipleship


Why aren't Priests allowed to marry? They were married in the early church. - Les Lipinski

Fun fact! Priests can be married. Yup! In the Eastern Rite Churches, some priests are married and some convert to the Latin Church as married priests. For that reason, I’m going to pivot this question from married priests to celibacy. Read on and you’ll understand why. 

Celibacy is a vocational call, not just for men but for women too. Jesus referred to this when he mentions people who make themselves “eunuchs” for the sake of the Kingdom (Matt 19:12). Essentially, the Latin Church has decided to ordain priests only among men who have discerned a vocational call to celibacy. The real question, then, is why only celibate men?

Unfortunately today, our understanding of celibacy is mostly negative. Many believe it’s repressive and is a contributor to sexual abuse crisis. This couldn’t be further from the truth. Celibacy is about sexual freedom. You heard that right! Christopher West says it best: “Sexual freedom, as the Catholic Church has always understood, is not the liberty to indulge one’s compulsions; it’s liberation from the compulsion to indulge.” This “freedom” is true even within marriages, but celibacy is a lifelong decision to sacrifice a great good, marriage and sex, for love of Christ and for the sake of the Church. It takes great courage and great love to choose this life, not for your own sake, but for others. It’s a gift and a sacrifice that priests like Fr. Rich have chosen for you! (Thanks, Father Rich!)

On a practical level, St. Paul in his letter to the Corinthians recognizes that it’s easier to remain single-minded for Christ and the Church if you are not married. (1 Cor 7:32-34) Because of this, Mother Church continues to desire this for every man serving as priest and bishop, again, for your sake and for mine. 

There’s so much more depth to the beauty and courageous call of the vocation celibacy. I recommend looking up Cor Project: The Joyful Truth of Celibacy.

God Bless!

-Mitchell Narvasa